history

can any of you help fastly in 35 history multiple choices ? related to Paleolithic/  Neolithic, Mesopotamia, Egypt, Israel, Phoenicia, Greece, Rome,  Mediaeval Europe, Byzantium and the Venetian republic and Islam.

Assessment for Learning ( feedback to classmate work) follow the guided please

Guided Response: Respond to at least two of your classmates by offering a critique of their ideas.

A critique [A critique is not the same thing as a criticism].

Your response

 

References

Your response

 

Note.  Keep in mind that graduate level responses are based on the literature.  Everyone has an opinion; graduate students have academic views.

 

 

questions

questions

Environmental Science 105

 

Final Exam

 

Topics: Food and Hunger, Biodiversity, and Restoration Ecology

 

 

1. Food security has to do with  A. A country's dependence on cash crop exports B. Preventing wars over diminishing food supplies C. The ability of a population to obtain food on a day-to-day basis D. The total volume of food a country imports E. The total volume of aid a country receives

 

 

2. Undernourished parents often raise children who are undernourished because the parents  A. Transfer genetic deficiencies to their children B. Do not know any better C. Cannot afford to feed their children properly D. Do not have access to the information about nutrition E. All of these are reasons for the vicious cycle

 

 

3. Famines are most often serious when there is  A. A very serious drought B. No room to expand agriculture C. Steady population growth D. Armed conflict and political oppression E. An attempt by indigenous people to return to old traditions and lands

 

 

4. What are two common diseases that result from protein deficiencies?  A. Dysentery and diarrhea B. Dysentery and scurvy C. Scurvy and pellagra D. Goiter and cretinism E. Marasmus and kwashiorkor

 

 

5. The three crops that humans rely on for the majority of nutrients and calories are  A. Potatoes, wheat and oats B. Wheat, rice and maize (corn) C. Barley, oats and rye D. Maize (corn), oats and rice E. Oats, beans and barley

 

 

6. Most of the livestock grown in North America are  A. Confined in CAFOs B. Held in pasture year-round C. Kept in pastures during the day and barns at night D. Kept in pastures during the summer and barns during the winter E. Exported to Europe after slaughter

 

7. Which of the following does not describe the status of the world's wild fisheries?  A. Overharvesting threatens the fisheries B. Subsidies are necessary to make the fisheries profitable C. Fish farming has allowed wild fish to recover worldwide D. Habitat destruction threatens the fisheries E. All of these describe the status of wild fisheries

 

8. High responder crops of the green revolution produce tremendous yields  A. Even in severe drought conditions B. With primitive farming techniques and no chemical use C. In response to fertilizers, pesticides and irrigation D. In all conditions where standard crops fail E. Even in severe drought conditions and with primitive farming techniques and no chemical use

 

9. Fifty years ago, there were several hundred varieties of wheat grown in the Middle East. Now a few of the more modern high responder varieties have replaced the indigenous species. What are the implications of this change?   A.  The productivity of wheat should continue to rise and increase the availability of food per person B.  Genetic resources are diminished and an epidemic of wheat disease is highly likely due to the reliance on few species C.  The high responder varieties will need specialized harvesting methods because they are so productive D.  The biodiversity of wheat species has increased because of the introduction of few hybrid species E.  All of these are correct

 

10.  ____ percent of adult Americans are overweight.   A.  23 B.  40 C.  80 D.  64 E.  90

 

11. Biodiversity consists of the following component(s):

 

A. Genetic diversity

 

B. Ecosystem diversity

 

C. Species diversity

 

D. All of the above

 

 

12. How do people benefit from biodiversity?

 

A. Insurance

 

B. Genetic knowledge

 

C. Environmental services and ecosystem function

 

D. All of the above

 

 

13. ________ is the single greatest threat to loss of biodiversity.

 

 

A) Habitat loss

 

B) Poaching and hunting

 

C) Introduction of alien species

 

D) Changes in biogeochemical cycles

 

 

14. An area with an especially large number of species is called a

 

A. Speciation

 

B. Species evenness

 

C. Hot spot

 

D. Allopatric speciation

 

15. What are some policies to save biodiversity?

 

A. Implementation of national and international laws that protect species

 

B. Efforts to preserve natural ecosystems

 

C. Market-based mechanisms that try to have users pays for the benefits of biodiversity

 

D. All of the above.

 

16. The common way that a species is defined in biology (the way it is defined in Chapter 3) is in terms of reproductive isolation. This means that all organisms that are similar enough to  A. Produce fertile offspring in nature B. Look alike C. Fill the same niche D. Occupy the same community E. Live together

 

Use the following scenario for questions 17 and 18: There are three ecological communities, each with differing species, but all of them have 100 individual plants and animals. Community A has 21 species. Of the 110 individuals, there are 50 individuals of one species and 3 each of the other 20 species. Community B has 11 species. Of the 110 individuals, there are 90 individuals of one species and 2 each of the other 10 species. Community C has 11 species. Of the 110 individuals, there are 10 individuals of each species.

 

17. In this scenario, which community has the highest species richness?  A. Community A B. Community B C. Community C D. Community A and C are the same E. Community A and B are the same

 

18. In this scenario, which communities have the same species evenness?  A. Community A and C B. Community B and A C. Community C and B D. All three communities have the same species evenness E. None of the communities has the same species evenness

 

19. Approximately how many species have been identified on Earth?  A. About 500,000 B. A little less than 1 million C. A little more than 1.5 million D. A little more than 3 million E. About 30 million

 

20. Most of the species that are yet undiscovered are probably  A. Mammals and reptiles B. Birds and fish C. Vertebrates D. Invertebrates E. Multicellular plants

 

21. Which of the following is not a benefit of biodiversity for humans?  A. Aesthetics B. Ecological services C. Food D. Drugs and medicines E. All of these are benefits of biodiversity

 

 

22. Soil formation and water purification are examples of _________ based on the biodiversity that benefit humans.  A. Aesthetic benefits B. Geological cycles C. Availability of food D. Health benefits E. Ecological services

 

 

23. Extinction is the term used when all members of a species  A. Disappear in a locality B. Die C. Live in zoos D. Are threatened with imminent habitat loss E. Are in danger of disappearing in a locality

 

 

24. Introduced (exotic) species tend to __________ the balance of ecosystems and ______ biodiversity.  A. Increase; decrease B. Increase; enhance C. Maintain; enhance D. Upset; decrease E. Upset; increase

 

 

25. Restoring coastal marshes has become a priority in protecting coastal cities from  A. Hurricanes B. Flooding C. Invasive species D. Both hurricanes and flooding E. All of these

 

 

26. Efforts to repair or reconstruct ecosystems are known as  A. Land stewardship B. Conservation reserve programs C. Landscape ecology D. Restoration ecology E. Mitigation

 

 

27. The word "mitigation" has come to mean to  A. Let nature heal itself B. Partially restore an ecosystem C. Restore or create an ecosystem in exchange for a similar damaged one D. Move to a new environment when one has been damaged E. Use natural processes to treat sewage water

 

 

 28. ________________ uses chemical, physical or biological methods to remove pollution.  A. Remediation B. Reclamation C. Mitigation D. Restoration E. Rehabilitation

 

 

29. Some of the advantages of planting trees in cities include  A. Acting as noise barriers B. Providing shade C. Improving air quality D. Improving the aesthetics E. All of these are correct

 

30. Problems encountered in the Florida Everglades due to modification of the natural flow of water include  A. Loss of 90 percent of wading bird populations in Everglades National Park B. Water shortages in many cities during the dry season C. Increased numbers of hurricanes D. Loss of 90 percent of wading bird populations in Everglades National Park and water shortages in many cities during the dry season E. All of these are correct

 

31. Radioactive materials have been successfully removed from the soil near the nuclear power plant using  A. Sunflowers B. Poplar trees C. Expensive soil removal and extraction methods D. Mustard greens E. None of these, there is no way to remove radioactive materials safely from soil 

 

32. "Brown fields" is another name for  A. Tall grass prairies B. Degraded wetlands C. Prairies converted into croplands D. Abandoned contaminated industrial sites E. Abandoned, contaminated surface mines

 

 

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/novella/ALAQuiz

 

Research Essay: Environmental

PROMPT: Oxygen-starved dead zones that cannot sustain life now cover an area roughly the size of the of Oregon. Spanish researchers also recently found that many species die off at oxygen levels well above what is now considerable uninhabitable, suggesting that the extent of dead zones in coastal areas in greater than previously known.  Dead zones are caused by excess nitrogen from farm fertilizers, factory and vehicle emissions, sewage and other pollution runoff.

 

-Define the problem and argue a solution 

 

5-7 pages (work cited not included in page count)

MINIMUM of 5 source citations

with a work cited page

 

Follow Rubric: 

1. Intro 2. Assertion 3. Concession 4. Rebuttal 5. Proof 6. Conclusion 

 

Research Paper: Environment

PROMPT: Oxygen-starved dead zones that cannot sustain life now cover an area roughly the size of the of Oregon. Spanish researchers also recently found that many species die off at oxygen levels well above what is now considerable uninhabitable, suggesting that the extent of dead zones in coastal areas in greater than previously known.  Dead zones are caused by excess nitrogen from farm fertilizers, factory and vehicle emissions, sewage and other pollution runoff.

-Define the problem and argue a solution 

5-7 pages (work cited not included in page count)

MINIMUM of 5 source citations

with a work cited page

Follow Rubric: 

1. Intro 2. Assertion 3. Concession 4. Rebuttal 5. Proof 6. Conclusion 

 

Drup Proposal to treat Cancer

 Recent studies support the potential of a drug that is derived from the metal iridium to effectively treat cancer. This experimental drug, Drug ZL105, has not been tested for efficacy and toxicity. Imagine that you are the one responsible for approving or denying the use of this drug within the United States. Your job is to propose the testing that is needed for this drug to be determined as safe and effective for the treatment of cancer in humans.

 In your research and discussion, you should address the questions below. 

 

1. What model(s) will you use for testing (i.e., animal, cell cultures, computer simulations)? Explain the choice of model, and provide support for the reliability of the model. Discuss the pros and cons of your choice. 

 

2. In determining the safety and effectiveness of the drug, would it be necessary to test efficacy, toxicity, and lethality? Explain what each of these tests are for and whether or not one or more of the tests are necessary for your determination.

 

3. Provide your thoughts on what information you hope to gather from your tests and whether or not the same protocol should be used for various categories of products such as drugs, cosmetics, and herbal medicines. 

 

Your case study assignment should be three to four pages in length and utilize at least three reliable references. Use APA style guidelines in writing this assignment, following APA rules for formatting, quoting, paraphrasing, citing, and referencing.  

 

OSHA Training and Development

1.Explain the differences between asbestos abatement training and asbestos awareness training.
 

Your response must be at least 75 words.

2. Discuss the connection between OSHA and EPA regarding hazardous waste operations. Why are most of the hazardous waste training requirements listed in the OSHA standards and not in the EPA standards?
 

Your response must be at least 200 words.

3. Discuss some of the benefits for an organization that follows the recommendations contained in ANSI Z490.
 

Your response must be at least 200 words.

4. Discuss three different ways that information is encoded in memory. Which of these three do you feel is the most relevant for safety training? Explain your choice.
 

Your response must be at least 200 words.

5. Explain the principle of praxis as applied to adult learning. Provide an example of how it could be applied in a safety training class.
 

Your response must be at least 200 words.

6. What are the four motivational strategies of the ARCS model? Which one do you think would be most important for a two-hour class on respiratory protection? Explain your choice.
 

Your response must be at least 200 words.

7. Explain how external factors can influence behavior and learning. Provide two examples that illustrate your point.
 

Your response must be at least 200 words.

 

Total Environmental Health and Safety

1.Describe how your organization or an organization you are familiar with manages occupational safety and health. To what extent are executives and facility managers committed to the OSH effort, and to what extent are front-line employees involved? What level of effort is exerted to ensure that hazards are evaluated and controlled? Are there continuous improvement efforts in place?
 

Your journal entry must be at least 200 words. No references or citations are necessary.

2. Explain the five-why technique, and describe how this technique can be used in incident investigation to identify potential causes that may tie to deficiencies in processes and management systems rather than mistakes made by workers?
 

Your response must be at least 75 words in length.

3. Compare and contrast the concepts of macro and micro thinking as they relate to safety and health management in the workplace. Which is more in alignment with the safety management systems approach and why?
 

Your response must be at least 75 words in length.

4. Appraise the concept of organizational culture and its relationship to successful implementation of safety management systems.
 

Your response must be at least 200 words in length.

5. In the conclusion to Chapter 4, Manuel states that top-level decisions largely cause potential for human error, and this impact spreads through the entire organization. Please examine this statement with respect to how it aligns with the tenets of the safety management systems approach to produce desired results.
 

Your response must be at least 200 words in length.

 

Advanced Solid Waste Management

NEED BY TOMORROW

Unit VI Scholarly Activity A local municipality expects to close its landfill in one year, and it has decided to adopt a thermal technology for the treatment of its municipal solid waste. The city needs your help to choose between a traditional municipal waste incinerator and a pyrolysis unit. As a solid waste professional, you have been hired by the city council to provide an analysis of these two technologies. You are tasked with preparing an executive summary that compares the two technologies. Your summary should contain the following items: a short description of the technologies, their advantages and disadvantages, their waste products, and their economics; the fundamental science and engineering principles of solid waste management that are involved; the laws or standards that factor into your decision; how your decision will affect the population of the community; and your recommendation and rationale to the city. Your executive summary should be a minimum of three pages in length. You must use your textbook and at least one resource from the CSU Online Library in your paper, but other academic sources may be used in addition. Any outside information used must be cited in accordance to APA style, and your paper should be formatted in APA style to include a title page, running head, and reference page. Information about accessing the grading rubric for this assignment is provided below. Unit VII

 

unit VII RP

 For this assignment, you are to read the case study on page 184 in Chapter 10. After reading this case, reflect on a situation that happened in your workplace that was similar in that an employee challenged an order and pointed to another document, such as a labor contract, rules and regulations, standard operating procedures (SOPs), or past practices, to state that he or she was not going to follow the order. You will need to look at this personnel matter from the standpoint of both the employee and the supervisor, and you will describe how long it took to resolve the matter in order to meet the requirements below. Summarize a situation surrounding personnel management issues. Evaluate the grievance process within your organization surrounding personnel management issues. Critique steps taken in the grievance process to resolve or attempt to resolve personnel management issues. Model recommendations and solutions surrounding the selected situation from the standpoint of the employee and supervisor. Remember, be mindful and respectful of those within your chosen situation by keeping specific names from being used. This assignment must be a minimum of three pages in length, not counting the title or reference pages. In addition to the textbook, at least one outsides source must be used to address the aforementioned requirements. Finally, you must follow APA formatting throughout the paper.